![]() ![]() ![]() This pronunciation is common in England and other places that use British English, like Australia and Canada. Zed is closer to the original Greek zeta, which is probably why some speakers use it. ![]() What does zed mean? Zed is the British English pronunciation of the letter Z. “Zee!” said Margot triumphantly, when her mother asked her what the last letter in the alphabet is.The new prep school teacher said zee instead of zed, like a shabby American cowgirl.While that accent is severely diminished there are a few words that crop up from time to time as remnants. Today regions might still retain an accent which was either the dominant version for that region or a merger of them, and might well be unintelligible to those not versed in it all. Much of that has been lost or at least severely downplayed. That said there is no one British accent (English is not even the only language on the British Isles) and it could quite well vary from village to village, much less region to region. Though that was a few more than two centuries. "There is this article here that says British Accent changed dramatically over the past 2 centuries while the American accent only subtly changed." That said it sounds like linguistics is at least a hobby for you as well. Compare on the other hand French which very much has those, and if you want to get deep into it then Quaranic Arabic is a whole thing to dive into. There are what are called prescriptive linguists (for others reading the "just note things down as they evolve" mindset being called descriptive), though they tend not to exist for English outside of snarky remarks in comment sections and letters to newspaper editors. "Linguist's don't like the concept of the correct way to speak because there is no such thing." There is no right and wrong in dialects, that'll be elitism. Linguist don't see it as idiots changing language. And it goes back to the top comment I made to FAST6191. And the Americans kept it the same rhotic way how originally Brits spoke. Both Brits and Americans were rhotic speakers, but the British changed it and became non-rhotic speakers dropping the R. Americans pronounce the R word like how the British originally spoke in the 1700's. Why did Brits started speaking in Received Pronunciation and started to drop the R in words? Like for the word "hard", why do British pronounce it a "hahd"? Was it because British are idiots and couldn't pronounce right? Rhetorical questions. It's not because a idiot couldn't spell, its much more than that.Īnother comparison of words changing for my point. And go back further in the past its different and so on. The way American and Brits spoke in the 1700's is different then how their ancestors spoke in the 13th century. Neither regions dialect was conservative and evolved in ways that were the same and also Linguist's don't like the concept of the correct way to speak because there is no such thing. There were also new words for Americans since they were in a different region and had to describe things that didn't exist in Britain. There are words British dropped and changed and there are words Americans dropped and changed. Both American and British English changed and are different then how they spoke in the 1700's. Which means that if you want to see how the British originally spoke you have to look at Modern Comtemporary American English and not Modern British English, since modern American English Accent is closer to how both spoke.īut there is more to it that the article it isn't mentioning. There is this article here that says British Accent changed dramatically over the past 2 centuries while the American accent only subtly changed. The one criticizing Americans for changing it. I wouldn't call it mispronunciation, just a natural evolution of English and language in Wow, look at that first comment in the article you linked. ![]()
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